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This article is awfully Hebrew Bible-centric at the moment, owing to my own knowledge of the subject (or, at the very least, of the Hebrew language). It should be noted that inclusios, however, are found outside the Hebrew Bible as well. Also of note is the fact that I tried to list several examples - it would take several volumes of paper for one to list every occurrence - and that if someone can come up with better, more representative examples of the various forms of inclusios, feel free to replace them. -- Itai 14:15, 13 Jun 2004 (UTC)

What languages are genitives in inclusio found in? - G↭a⇅a | Talk 05:53, 14 Jun 2004 (UTC)

New Testament Greek, apparently. Other than that, I'm not sure. As you can see from the article, I set out to write an article about the literary tool inclusio, and merely stumbled upon its grammatical meaning. A comparison between the two can be found at [1]. I admit that I am not a linguistics - which will not stop me from composing at least one more linguistic article on Wikipedia - and thus cannot really elaborate on the subject. To quote [2] (PDF) (I'm afraid the Greek characters didn't get through properly):

e1xontev (pres. act. part. nom. pl. masc. of e1xw, adverbial, temporal). Strictly speaking, grammatically the participle e1xontev is joined with sth&kete (so indicated on the diagram). The only objection is the rather considerable distance involved. However, the thought of contending in the struggle resumes the concept of conducting their lives, and the grammar is regular. In addition, the participial clause provides an inclusio with sth&kete k.t.l.. The only alternative is to treat the participle as an independent nominative. Most commentators regard e1xontev as an irregular nominative (instead of a dative to agree with u(mi=n) and to assume that Paul had u(mei=v before his mind as the logical subject of the preceding clause. If this is the case, then the participle is an independent (hanging) participle.

Which, to me, makes very little sense. -- Itai 13:51, 14 Jun 2004 (UTC)


[I propose a general paragraph on inclusio before that which follows] Inclusions (from the Latin "inclusio") are perhaps the simplest demarcation device in ancient literature, evolving from oral tradition conventions. The term means a shutting up or confinement. Inclusions "act in pairs to bracket a text, usually signaling the beginning, end, or transition to another section." In this way, in predominantly oral/aural cultures, inclusions act as sound markers that alert the hearer/reader to changes in scene, action, location, etc. "They are very common in orally conditioned literature" in many ancient cultures. [If I can be of further help, for instance with further illustrations, please let me know. victor.wilson@stjohnsdevon.com, author of Divine Symmetries:The Art of Biblical Rhetoric (1997), from which the quotations are taken.] Victor M. Wilson 71.225.134.82 01:49, 14 January 2006 (UTC)[reply]

What the significance of the inclusio needs to be discussed - does it emphasize something? minimize something? what is it that is emphasized or minimized? ...

In the Hebrew Bible, at least, inclusio is used to reveal the central concerns of a unit. The bracketing sections are an interpretive clue as to the way the passage should be read. Sighter Goliant 00:20, 5 January 2007 (UTC)[reply]

A purpose of an inclusio is to draw attention to someone, something, or some event so that you will think about it or meditate on it deeply. The mentioning of Simon Peter in both the first and last chapter of St. Mark would be one example (Mark 1:16 and 16:7). Some scholars say the explanation is that Mark's Gospel is a reminiscence of the preaching of Peter. Another example: The word witness appears in the very beginning and very ending of Luke's Gospel (Luke 1:2 and 24:48). Some scholars say the explanation is that the concept of witnessing is central to understanding Luke's Gospel. L. Thomas W. (talk) 15:44, 2 April 2018 (UTC) L. Thomas W. L. Thomas W. (talk) 15:44, 2 April 2018 (UTC)[reply]

Grammatical terminology

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"Inclusio" is not a standard term in linguistics/syntax. Perhaps in Biblical philology. This needs to be backed up by a citation in the article (the source quoted above does not seem sufficient), and a brief example would be useful. CapnPrep 08:37, 4 April 2007 (UTC)[reply]

I couldn't find anything substantial so I deleted the part about grammar. From this ref [3] it seems like a rarely used synonym for epanalepsis.

No sources

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There are no sources found in this article. As I know little of Inclusio I cannot add a source. SayYourSomething (talk) 02:56, 31 December 2022 (UTC)[reply]